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B2-C1 OET (Occupational English Test)

OET (Occupational English Test) Practice Tests

10 full-length practice tests in the official OET (Occupational English Test) format. Each test has four papers — Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking — with audio and instant feedback.

10practice tests
165minutes per test
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🎧 Listening📖 Reading✍️ Writing🗣️ Speaking

OET Practice Test 1 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers

A free, interactive OET (Occupational English Test) practice test with answers, about 165 minutes.

TopicsRecurrent headaches (migraine with aura)Type 2 diabetes dietAntimicrobial stewardshipDelirium in older inpatientsHypoglycaemia managementHand hygieneThe placebo effectHip replacement dischargeAtrial fibrillation referral

This OET Practice Test 1 (Nursing & Medicine) has 4 papers — Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking. Choose a paper below to start; your browser will load the interactive version automatically.

Listening

Listening Part A — Extract 1: Questions 1-12

You hear a GP talking to a patient called Nadia Petrova. For questions 1-12, complete the notes with a word or short phrase that you hear. You will hear the extract ONCE only.

  1. Listen and write: 1. History — headaches started about ___ ago
  2. Listen and write: 2. Site of pain — mainly behind the ___
  3. Listen and write: 3. Character of pain — ___
  4. Listen and write: 4. Duration — episodes typically last ___
  5. Listen and write: 5. Associated symptoms — nausea; sensitivity to ___
  6. Listen and write: 6. Before headache — sees ___ (aura)
  7. Listen and write: 7. Possible triggers — skipping meals; ___
  8. Listen and write: 8. Occupation — ___ (rotating shifts)
  9. Listen and write: 9. Current treatment — over-the-counter ___
  10. Listen and write: 10. Analgesic use — on about ___ days per month
  11. Listen and write: 11. Contraception — combined ___ (review needed)
  12. Listen and write: 12. Plan — patient to keep a ___ for 8 weeks

Listening Part A — Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a dietitian talking to a patient called Tomasz Nowak. For questions 13-24, complete the notes with a word or short phrase that you hear. You will hear the extract ONCE only.

  1. Listen and write: 13. Diagnosis — picked up at a ___
  2. Listen and write: 14. HbA1c at diagnosis — ___ mmol/mol
  3. Listen and write: 15. Breakfast — usually a bowl of ___
  4. Listen and write: 16. Drinks — about a litre of ___ a day
  5. Listen and write: 17. Occupation — ___ (irregular meal times)
  6. Listen and write: 18. Snacks during shifts — mainly ___
  7. Listen and write: 19. Main concern — fear of needing ___
  8. Listen and write: 20. Physical activity — ___ at weekends
  9. Listen and write: 21. Advice — swap white bread for ___ bread
  10. Listen and write: 22. Plate model — half the plate: ___
  11. Listen and write: 23. Referral — ___ programme
  12. Listen and write: 24. Follow-up — dietetic review in ___

Listening Part B — Questions 25-30

You will hear six different extracts. In each extract, you will hear people talking in a different healthcare setting. For questions 25-30, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear.

  1. You hear a nurse handing over a patient to a colleague. What does she ask her colleague to do? (A) reassess the patient's pain before he gets out of bed (B) check whether the patient still needs his urinary catheter (C) contact the patient's daughter about the discharge date
  2. You hear a ward manager talking to her team. Why is she raising the subject of the electronic prescribing system? (A) A software update will change how medication doses are displayed. (B) Staff are overriding warnings without recording a reason. (C) Some staff have not yet completed the required training.
  3. You hear a pharmacist talking to a nurse on a ward. What is the pharmacist's concern? (A) The patient is receiving a higher dose than was prescribed. (B) The patient's feeding tube may have become blocked. (C) The patient has been given a tablet that should not be crushed.
  4. You hear a physiotherapist talking to a patient who has had a knee replacement. What is she doing? (A) explaining why the patient must not bend the knee yet (B) persuading the patient to take more pain relief before exercising (C) correcting a misunderstanding about how to use the crutches
  5. You hear two junior doctors discussing a blood result. What do they decide to do? (A) give the patient intravenous calcium straight away (B) repeat the test before starting any treatment (C) contact the laboratory to query the reference range
  6. You hear a midwife giving feedback to a student. What does she criticise? (A) the timing of the student's entries in the notes (B) the student's use of unapproved abbreviations in the notes (C) the amount of detail in the student's records

Listening Part C — Extract 1: Questions 31-36

You hear an interview with an infectious diseases physician called Dr Marcus Bell, who leads an antimicrobial stewardship team. For questions 31-36, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear.

  1. How does Dr Bell describe the attitude of clinicians when his team was first set up? (A) They were unaware that antibiotic resistance was increasing. (B) They saw the team as an attempt to control their prescribing. (C) They expected the team to take over responsibility for infections.
  2. According to Dr Bell, what changed the relationship with prescribers? (A) offering advice at the bedside rather than issuing rules (B) publishing audit data comparing different departments (C) restricting prescribers' access to certain broad-spectrum antibiotics
  3. What does Dr Bell say about the 'five-day rule' for antibiotic courses? (A) It is supported by strong evidence for most infections. (B) It has been misunderstood as a fixed minimum by some staff. (C) It works best when combined with a review at forty-eight hours.
  4. Dr Bell mentions the case of an elderly patient in order to illustrate (A) the difficulty of diagnosing infections in patients with dementia. (B) the risks of treating a positive urine test without symptoms. (C) the need to involve families in decisions about antibiotics.
  5. What does Dr Bell think about rapid diagnostic tests? (A) They will soon make stewardship teams unnecessary. (B) They are still too expensive for routine use in most hospitals. (C) Their value depends on how clinicians act on the results.
  6. What advice does Dr Bell give to junior doctors? (A) to write the intended duration whenever they start an antibiotic (B) to consult the stewardship team before prescribing any antibiotic (C) to become familiar with the local pattern of resistance

Listening Part C — Extract 2: Questions 37-42

You hear a nurse consultant called Ruth Adeyemi giving a presentation about delirium in older patients in hospital. For questions 37-42, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear.

  1. Ruth begins her talk by describing a patient in order to show that (A) relatives are often the first to notice signs of delirium. (B) the quiet form of delirium is easily overlooked. (C) delirium can develop within hours of admission.
  2. What does Ruth say about the consequences of delirium? (A) They are frequently mistaken for signs of dementia. (B) They are more serious than many staff realise. (C) They usually resolve once the patient goes home.
  3. According to Ruth, why did the ward's previous screening method fail? (A) It was carried out only when staff already suspected a problem. (B) The questions were too complicated for patients to answer. (C) The results were not passed on to the medical team.
  4. Ruth mentions the 'sleep bundle' as an example of (A) a simple measure that required a change in routine. (B) an intervention that patients initially resisted. (C) a costly initiative that the ward eventually had to abandon.
  5. What point does Ruth make about antipsychotic medication? (A) It is useful when non-drug approaches have been tried for several days. (B) It is now prescribed less often than it was in the past. (C) It should be reserved for patients who are a danger to themselves or others.
  6. What does Ruth suggest the audience should do first? (A) review each patient's medication list for drugs that can cause confusion (B) attend the hospital's training sessions on delirium screening (C) find out what a patient is normally like from someone who knows them

Reading

Reading Part A — Questions 1-7 (15 minutes)

Part A — 15 minutes for Questions 1-20. Look at the four texts, A-D. For each question 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. You may use any letter more than once.

  1. In which text can you find information about why a certain drug may not work?
  2. In which text can you find information about patients who may not notice early symptoms?
  3. In which text can you find information about the best product for a patient who needs modified-consistency drinks?
  4. In which text can you find information about how many times a treatment step can be repeated?
  5. In which text can you find information about who should be told after an episode?
  6. In which text can you find information about the reasons patients become hypoglycaemic?
  7. In which text can you find information about a concentration of solution that should no longer be used?

Reading Part A — Questions 8-14

Answer each of the questions 8-14 with a word or short phrase from one of the texts (A-D). Each answer may include words, numbers or both. Answers must be correctly spelt.

  1. 8. Below what blood glucose level is a patient with diabetes considered hypoglycaemic?
  2. 9. Which type of medication may reduce a patient's autonomic symptoms?
  3. 10. How long should staff wait before rechecking the CBG of a conscious patient who has been given oral treatment?
  4. 11. What drink should be avoided by patients with renal failure?
  5. 12. What should be given by IM injection if a patient has no IV access?
  6. 13. In what position should an unconscious hypoglycaemic patient be placed?
  7. 14. What dose of glucagon should be given to a child weighing 20 kg?

Reading Part A — Questions 15-20

Complete each of the sentences 15-20 with a word or short phrase from one of the texts (A-D). Each answer may include words, numbers or both.

  1. 15. A change in behaviour caused by hypoglycaemia may be mistaken for a ___ or intoxication.
  2. 16. Glucose gel should be placed between the teeth and ___.
  3. 17. Chocolate is unsuitable as a first treatment because its ___ slows absorption.
  4. 18. When 20% glucose is used, the recommended volume is ___.
  5. 19. After recovery, a patient could be given one slice of bread or two ___ to prevent recurrence.
  6. 20. The effect of glucagon wears off after about ___.

Reading Part B — Question 1

Part B: read the short text and choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

  1. The guide makes it clear that the battery (A) should be replaced whenever the alarm sounds. (B) will last for six hours regardless of the infusion rate used. (C) is not suitable as the main power source for the pump.

Reading Part B — Question 2

Part B: read the short text and choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

  1. According to the policy, a nurse who accepts a verbal order must (A) ensure that another nurse signs the medication chart. (B) repeat the details back to the prescriber for confirmation. (C) check that the drug is on the hospital's list of approved medicines.

Reading Part B — Question 3

Part B: read the short text and choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

  1. What does the email say about staff who choose not to be vaccinated? (A) Their line managers will be informed of their decision. (B) Some of them will be asked to explain their decision. (C) They will be redeployed away from high-risk areas.

Reading Part B — Question 4

Part B: read the short text and choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

  1. What does the guideline say about a patient who declines a chaperone? (A) The examination must be postponed until one is available. (B) A relative of the patient should be asked to attend instead. (C) The clinician must use judgement about whether to continue.

Reading Part B — Question 5

Part B: read the short text and choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

  1. The purpose of this notice is to (A) change where specimen tubes are labelled. (B) introduce pre-printed labels for all samples. (C) announce new rules for blood transfusion samples.

Reading Part B — Question 6

Part B: read the short text and choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

  1. According to the memo, a sharps container must be replaced when (A) it has been in use for three months. (B) it has been filled right up to the top. (C) the temporary closure has been used.

Reading Part C — Text 1: Hand hygiene (Questions 7-14)

Part C: read the text and answer questions 7-14. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text.

  1. According to the first paragraph, why was handwashing initially rejected? (A) There was no explanation of how it could prevent disease. (B) Midwives had already shown that it made little difference. (C) Chlorinated lime was considered harmful to patients. (D) Death rates on doctors' wards had not yet been recorded.
  2. What point does the writer make about surgeons in the second paragraph? (A) They adopted antiseptic practices because the consequences of infection were more apparent. (B) They were initially more resistant to germ theory than physicians were. (C) They were responsible for spreading infection from theatres to the wards. (D) They required decades to accept that handwashing had any scientific basis.
  3. What does the writer find particularly worrying about the compliance figures in the third paragraph? (A) It varies greatly between different countries. (B) Nurses perform only slightly better than doctors. (C) It has declined in recent years. (D) It is poorest in the areas with the most at-risk patients.
  4. In the fourth paragraph, the phrase 'the most practical of all excuses' refers to (A) the damage caused to skin by frequent washing. (B) the number of patients each nurse has to care for. (C) the difficulty of cleaning sore and cracked hands. (D) the time needed to wash hands at a sink.
  5. The writer suggests that poster campaigns alone are ineffective because (A) most staff already understand why hand hygiene is important. (B) behaviour is influenced mainly by habit and by colleagues. (C) they are not seen by the most senior staff. (D) patients are not encouraged to take part.
  6. What is the main drawback of direct observation as a way of measuring compliance? (A) It is too expensive for most hospitals. (B) It may give a misleadingly positive result. (C) It cannot identify when hand rub was used. (D) It is regarded by staff as a form of surveillance.
  7. In the sixth paragraph, what does the word 'it' in 'it may come to feel' refer to? (A) the hand rub dispenser (B) the patient zone (C) the badge technology (D) the electronic recording system
  8. What is the writer's main conclusion? (A) Further evidence is needed to prove that hand hygiene reduces infection. (B) Early advocates of handwashing deserve more recognition. (C) Efforts should focus on making hand hygiene as easy as possible. (D) Antibiotic resistance has made hand hygiene less effective.

Reading Part C — Text 2: The placebo effect in practice (Questions 15-22)

Part C: read the text and answer questions 15-22. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text.

  1. In the first paragraph, the writer suggests that the traditional view of the placebo effect (A) has overestimated its importance in clinical trials. (B) has been challenged mainly by the results of drug trials. (C) has treated it as something to be eliminated rather than used. (D) has made researchers reluctant to use inert pills.
  2. The experiment involving naloxone is mentioned as evidence that (A) the placebo effect has a measurable biological basis. (B) placebos can be as effective as opioid analgesics. (C) patients sometimes exaggerate the effects of placebos. (D) naloxone can reduce the effect of genuine painkillers.
  3. What does the example of asthma illustrate? (A) Placebos may improve how patients feel without treating the disease itself. (B) Placebo responses are stronger in respiratory than in neurological conditions. (C) Objective measures are more reliable than patients' own reports. (D) Anxiety can make the symptoms of asthma worse.
  4. What criticism of open-label placebo trials is mentioned? (A) They have only been carried out in a narrow range of conditions. (B) The benefits they report are too small to be meaningful. (C) Participants are misled about what the pills contain. (D) Their participants may not represent patients in general.
  5. The comparison between open and hidden morphine injections suggests that (A) hidden injections are safer for patients in severe pain. (B) morphine is less effective when given intravenously. (C) patients need to know the dose they are receiving. (D) the way a treatment is given affects its outcome.
  6. In the fifth paragraph, the writer implies that clinicians should (A) avoid mentioning possible side-effects to patients. (B) consider carefully how they present information about side-effects. (C) prescribe inert treatments to patients who fear side-effects. (D) explain the nocebo effect to anxious patients.
  7. In the sixth paragraph, 'The latter practice' refers to (A) deceiving patients about inert medical treatments. (B) prescribing antibiotics for viral infections. (C) prescribing vitamins. (D) conducting surveys of doctors.
  8. What is the writer's overall view? (A) Placebos should be prescribed more widely, provided patients consent. (B) The ethical problems of placebo use outweigh the potential benefits. (C) The clinician's approach to patients deserves to be taken seriously as part of treatment. (D) More research is needed before any conclusions can be drawn.

Writing

Part 12 — Writing — Nursing: referral to community nurse after hip replacement

Reading time: 5 minutes. Writing time: 40 minutes. Read the case notes and complete the writing task which follows. (7ESL practice: the timer shows 45 minutes in total.)

Using the information in the case notes, write a letter to Ms Anita Rao, Community Nurse, Brookfield Community Health Centre, 5 Station Road, Brookfield, who will visit Mrs Webb at home after her discharge tomorrow. In your answer: expand the relevant notes into complete sentences; do not use note form; use letter format. The body of the letter should be approximately 180–200 words.

Part 13 — Writing — Medicine: referral to cardiologist (new atrial fibrillation)

Reading time: 5 minutes. Writing time: 40 minutes. Read the case notes and complete the writing task which follows. (7ESL practice: the timer shows 45 minutes in total.)

Using the information in the case notes, write a letter of referral to Dr Helen Moore, Consultant Cardiologist, Cardiology Department, Hillside Hospital, 200 Park Road, Hillside, requesting assessment of Mr Kumar for rhythm control. In your answer: expand the relevant notes into complete sentences; do not use note form; use letter format. The body of the letter should be approximately 180–200 words.

Speaking

Part 1 — Speaking — Nursing Role-play 1: wound care after surgery

You have 3 minutes to read the role-play card and prepare. The role-play then lasts about 5 minutes. You are the nurse; the examiner plays the patient. Press play to hear each line, then answer in the pause. Compare with the model answer afterwards.

  1. Hello, nurse. They said you'd come and talk to me about going home. Example: Hello, I'm Sam, one of the nurses looking after you today. Yes, you're going home tomorrow, so I'd like to go through how to look after your wounds. Before I start, how are you feeling about going home?
  2. Honestly, I'm really worried. What if the wounds open, or get infected? I've never had an operation before and I live on my own. Example: That's completely understandable, especially as it's your first operation and you won't have anyone at home to check for you. The good news is these are four very small cuts, and they're closed with a special skin glue, so they're very unlikely to open. Let me explain exactly what to do, and then you'll know what to look out for.
  3. I was told I have to keep them dry. Does that mean I can't have a shower? Example: Yes, you can shower. The dressings are waterproof, so leave them in place for another two days, then you can take them off. When you shower, let the water run over the wounds, don't scrub them, and pat them dry gently with a clean towel. What I'd ask you to avoid is baths, swimming pools or hot tubs for about two weeks, because soaking can soften the glue.
  4. OK. And the glue, do I need to get it taken off? Example: No, nothing needs to be removed. The glue will gradually peel off by itself in about seven to ten days. Please don't pick at it.
  5. How would I know if it was infected? Example: Good question. A little bruising is normal. But if you notice any wound becoming more red, swollen, hot or more painful, rather than less, or if there's any yellow or smelly discharge, or you feel feverish and unwell, then please phone your GP or the ward. I'll give you the ward number on your discharge letter. Could you tell me back what you'd look out for?
  6. Redness, swelling, pus, a temperature. Actually, there's something else. I've got this strange pain in my right shoulder. Has something gone wrong? Example: I can see why that would worry you, but no, that's very common after keyhole surgery. During the operation, the surgeons fill the tummy with gas so they can see, and a bit of that gas irritates a nerve that shares a pathway with the shoulder. It usually settles within a few days. Walking around helps it disperse, and regular paracetamol will help with the discomfort.
  7. That's a relief. Oh, and next week I have to take my dog to the vet. He's old, so I have to lift him into the car. Example: I understand your dog needs to go, but I'd strongly advise against lifting him. For four to six weeks, you shouldn't lift anything heavy, because the muscles inside are still healing and there's a risk of a hernia. Is there anyone, a neighbour or friend, who could lift him for you or take him?
  8. I suppose my neighbour could help. He's offered before. Example: That would be ideal. Short walks are really good for you, though, so do keep moving. And no driving until you can do an emergency stop without pain. So, just to check, what are the main things you'll do when you get home?

Part 2 — Speaking — Nursing Role-play 2: feverish toddler

You have 3 minutes to read the role-play card and prepare. The role-play then lasts about 5 minutes. You are the nurse; the examiner plays the parent. Press play to hear each line, then answer in the pause. Compare with the model answer afterwards.

  1. Is that it, then? We're going home? But he's still so hot. Example: Yes, the doctor's happy that Leo can go home, but I can see you're still worried. Can you tell me what's concerning you most?
  2. His temperature was nearly thirty-nine. That's really high, isn't it? My friend's little girl had a fit when she had a fever. I'm scared. Example: That sounds very frightening, and it's natural to worry after hearing that. A temperature like Leo's is actually the body's normal way of fighting an infection. How high it goes doesn't tell us how serious the illness is. What matters more is how he's behaving, and the doctor found he's alert, playing and drinking, which are all good signs.
  3. But why won't the doctor give him antibiotics? My older boy had them last year and got better really quickly. Example: It's a fair question. The doctor thinks this is caused by a virus, and antibiotics only work on bacteria, so they wouldn't help Leo get better any faster. They can also cause side-effects like diarrhoea or a rash. It's likely your older son would have recovered at the same speed anyway, because most of these infections clear up by themselves in a few days.
  4. OK. At home I've been giving him paracetamol and ibuprofen together every two hours, and sponging him with cold water. Example: Thank you for telling me, that's really helpful. I'd like to change that a little, to keep him safe. You only need medicine if he seems distressed or uncomfortable, not just to bring the number down. Use either paracetamol or ibuprofen, at the dose on the bottle for his age, and don't give them together routinely or more often than the label says, because it's easy to give too much. And please don't sponge him with cold water. It can make him shiver, which actually raises his temperature. Light clothing and plenty of small drinks are best.
  5. How will I know if he's getting worse, then? Example: That's the most important thing, so I'll give you a leaflet too. Bring him back straight away if he has a rash that doesn't fade when you press a glass on it, if he's struggling to breathe, if he stops drinking or has far fewer wet nappies, if he's unusually sleepy and hard to wake, or if he has a fit. Also, if the fever lasts more than five days, see your GP.
  6. Right. Glass test, breathing, drinking, sleepy, fit. Example: Exactly. You've got it. If he's not improving in forty-eight hours, even without those signs, please see your GP. Does that plan sound OK to you?

Part 3 — Speaking — Medicine Role-play 1: patient requesting antibiotics

You have 3 minutes to read the role-play card and prepare. The role-play then lasts about 5 minutes. You are the doctor; the examiner plays the patient. Press play to hear each line, then answer in the pause. Compare with the model answer afterwards.

  1. I need some antibiotics, doctor. I can't afford to be ill right now. Example: I can hear this is really bad timing for you. Before we talk about treatment, can you tell me a bit more about what's going on and why it's so important to get better quickly?
  2. I've got a huge presentation in Singapore in three days. I have to be at my best. Example: That's a lot of pressure, and I want to help you feel as well as possible for it. I've examined you, and your temperature is only slightly raised, your throat is a little red but your tonsils look healthy, your glands aren't swollen and your chest is clear. All of that tells me this is a viral infection, a heavy cold, rather than a bacterial one.
  3. My old doctor always gave me antibiotics for this, and they always worked. Example: I understand why you'd think that. The thing is, colds like this get better on their own in about a week, so you'd have recovered at the same time with or without the tablets. Antibiotics only work on bacteria. They'd give you no benefit here, but they could give you side-effects like diarrhoea or thrush, which is the last thing you'd want on a trip. And every unnecessary course helps bacteria become resistant, so antibiotics may not work when you really need them.
  4. Great. So I took the morning off work to come here and I'm leaving with nothing. Example: I understand that's frustrating, and I'm sorry it feels that way. But I don't want you to leave with nothing. There's quite a lot we can do to help you feel better for your presentation.
  5. Well, what can I do, then? Example: Take paracetamol or ibuprofen regularly for the sore throat and aches. Drink plenty of fluids; warm honey and lemon is soothing, and throat lozenges or sprays can help before you speak. Get as much rest as you can over the next two days. By the time you fly, most of the worst symptoms should be easing, although the cough can linger for up to three weeks, which is normal.
  6. And if it doesn't get better? Example: Good question. Please come back, or see a doctor abroad, if you develop a high fever, find it hard to breathe or swallow, get worse after starting to improve, or if the cough is still there after three weeks. Those could suggest something different. Is that OK?

Part 4 — Speaking — Medicine Role-play 2: new diagnosis of hypertension

You have 3 minutes to read the role-play card and prepare. The role-play then lasts about 5 minutes. You are the doctor; the examiner plays the patient. Press play to hear each line, then answer in the pause. Compare with the model answer afterwards.

  1. So, what did the readings show, doctor? Example: Thank you for doing the home readings. Over the week, your blood pressure averaged about 158 over 98. Together with the readings here, that confirms you have high blood pressure, or hypertension. How do you feel about hearing that?
  2. Surprised, to be honest. I feel absolutely fine. How can I be ill if I don't have any symptoms? Example: That's a really common reaction, and you're right that most people feel completely well. That's why high blood pressure is sometimes called a silent condition. The problem is what it does over time: it puts extra strain on the blood vessels, which increases the risk of a stroke, a heart attack and kidney damage. Your tests show no damage so far, which is great, and treating it now is about keeping it that way.
  3. My mother was on blood pressure tablets and her ankles swelled up terribly. I really don't want that. Example: I'm glad you told me, that's an important concern. The tablet I'd suggest, amlodipine, can cause ankle swelling in some people, but most people don't get it, especially at the starting dose. If you did, it's not harmful, and we would simply switch you to a different tablet. There are several options, so you wouldn't have to put up with side-effects.
  4. Couldn't I just change my diet and do more exercise instead? Example: Those changes are really valuable, and I'd definitely like you to make them: cutting down on salt, keeping alcohol within limits, losing a little weight and being active for thirty minutes most days. Together they can lower blood pressure noticeably. But with readings at this level and your overall risk, lifestyle changes alone probably won't bring it down enough, so I'd recommend doing both.
  5. Will I have to take tablets for the rest of my life? Example: Many people do need long-term treatment, but it isn't always the case. If your lifestyle changes bring your blood pressure down well, we can review the dose, and occasionally reduce or stop it. We'll check regularly, so it's not a decision set in stone.
  6. OK. I'll give them a try, I suppose. Example: Thank you. So the plan is: start amlodipine five milligrams once a day, keep doing a few home readings each week, and work on the salt and exercise. I'll see you in four weeks to check your blood pressure and how you're getting on with the tablet. If your ankles do swell, just call us. Does that sound all right?

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OET Practice Test 2 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers

Knee osteoarthritis (physiotherapy)InsomniaLong COVID clinicFalls prevention in hospitalPaediatric acute asthmaInfant microbiome and antibioticsHealthcare-worker burnoutDiabetes educator referral (insulin initiation)Iron-deficiency anaemia referral

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

Start Test 2 →

OET Practice Test 3 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers

COPD inhaler techniqueAcute goutEarly recognition of sepsisMusic therapy in dementiaAnaphylaxis and adrenalineSocial prescribingPharmacogenomicsStroke rehabilitation transferSuspected Parkinson's disease referral

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

Start Test 3 →

OET Practice Test 4 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers Pro

Gestational diabetesPsoriasisRural telehealthPost-operative opioid stewardshipPressure-injury preventionSugar taxes and obesityChronic pain and neuroplasticityVenous leg ulcer dischargeSuspected ACL tear referral

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

See Test 4 →

OET Practice Test 5 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers Pro

Irritable bowel syndromeTinnitusNeedle-stick injuriesEarly mobilisation in intensive careWarfarin and INR monitoringNight-shift work and healthRobotic surgeryUTI with delirium: transfer to aged careHyperthyroidism referral

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

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OET Practice Test 6 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers Pro

Fatigue and iron-deficiency anaemiaCardiac rehabilitation after coronary stentingVaccine hesitancyISBAR clinical handoverPaediatric gastroenteritis and oral rehydrationLoneliness as a health riskArtificial intelligence in radiologyPalliative care discharge to district nurseSuspected rheumatoid arthritis referral

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

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OET Practice Test 7 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers Pro

Diabetic foot review (podiatry)Recurrent urinary tract infectionsMedication-error reporting cultureNutrition in cancer careBurns first aid and managementThe antibiotic pipelineSleep in hospitalPost-stroke dysphagia transferSuspected obstructive sleep apnoea referral

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

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OET Practice Test 8 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers Pro

Hypothyroidism symptomsKidney stones (renal colic)Organ donationSurgical-site infection preventionNeonatal jaundice & phototherapyAir pollution & healthFrailty in older adultsNew epilepsy in a school-age childVisible haematuria referral

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

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OET Practice Test 9 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers Pro

Asthma reviewGlaucoma eye dropsPalliative-care conversationsVTE preventionIV potassium safetyExercise as medicineThe gut–brain axis and depressionPostnatal anxiety referralLymphadenopathy referral

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

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OET Practice Test 10 (Nursing & Medicine) with Answers Pro

Vertigo (benign paroxysmal positional vertigo)Fatty liver disease and alcoholInterpreters and health literacyPain assessment in non-verbal patientsFebrile neutropeniaHeatwaves and healthMRNA vaccinesOlder insulin user discharged to home-care nursingPersistent cough referral to respiratory physicianGoing home with a urinary catheterRelative requesting confidential informationAir travel after DVTInfant with bronchiolitis

Listening · Reading · Writing · Speaking · about 165 min

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The four OET papers

OET (Occupational English Test) is made up of four papers, exactly as in the real exam. You can sit a whole test or practise one paper at a time:

🎧 ListeningAbout 40 minutes, 42 questions, the same for every profession. Part A: two consultations between a health professional and a patient, with note completion (24 questions). Part B: six short workplace extracts, one 3-option question each. Part C: two longer interviews or talks on healthcare topics, six questions each. You hear each extract once.OET (Occupational English Test) Listening practice tests📖 Reading60 minutes, 42 questions, the same for every profession. Part A is a 15-minute speed-reading task on four short texts (20 questions: matching, short answers and sentence completion). Part B has six short workplace texts such as guidelines, memos and policies. Part C has two longer articles with eight 4-option questions each.OET (Occupational English Test) Reading practice tests✍️ Writing45 minutes: 5 minutes to read the case notes, then 40 minutes to write a letter (usually a referral, transfer or discharge letter) of about 180-200 words for the body. Choose Nursing or Medicine. Each task has a Grade A model letter and Grade A and Grade C samples with criterion-by-criterion comments.OET (Occupational English Test) Writing practice tests🗣️ SpeakingAbout 20 minutes: a short warm-up that is not assessed, then two role-plays of about 5 minutes each, with 3 minutes to prepare each one. You play your own profession; the interlocutor plays a patient or a relative. Choose Nursing or Medicine. Every role-play has the candidate card, the interlocutor's cues, model answers and a full model dialogue.OET (Occupational English Test) Speaking practice tests

How OET is scored

OET reports each sub-test on a 0-500 scale with a letter grade from A to E; Grade B (350) is the level most healthcare regulators ask for. On 7ESL, Listening and Reading give an instant score out of 42 (about 30/42 is the Grade B level). Writing and Speaking are not auto-marked: you get Grade A model answers, Grade A and Grade C sample letters with comments on each criterion, and full model role-plays. Pro members can also get an estimated grade for a letter from the AI examiner.

What is OET?

OET (Occupational English Test) is an English test for healthcare professionals. Instead of general topics, it uses the situations you meet at work: a consultation with a patient, a clinical guideline, a referral letter or a conversation with a worried relative. OET is available for 12 professions: Dentistry, Dietetics, Medicine, Nursing, Occupational Therapy, Optometry, Pharmacy, Physiotherapy, Podiatry, Radiography, Speech Pathology and Veterinary Science.

OET is owned by Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment. You can take it on paper or on computer at a test venue, or as OET@Home with a remote proctor. Not every organisation accepts every delivery mode: for example, Australia's visa rules do not accept tests taken online, so check before you choose.

Who takes OET, and who accepts it?

OET is taken mainly by doctors and nurses, along with other health professionals, who want to register or work in an English-speaking country. It is recognised by healthcare regulators, employers, universities and some immigration authorities. Examples include:

  • UK: the Nursing and Midwifery Council (NMC) and the General Medical Council (GMC).
  • Australia: health practitioner boards, and the Department of Home Affairs, which lists OET among its approved tests for visas.
  • USA: ECFMG requires OET Medicine for all applicants to its 2027 Pathways, with at least 350 in Listening, Reading and Speaking and 300 in Writing, all from one test.
  • Ireland, New Zealand and Canada: various regulators, including some Canadian nursing regulators.

Each organisation sets its own grades and decides how old a result may be, so check its current rules first.

OET format at a glance

Sub-testContentTime
Listening (all professions)3 parts, 42 questions: consultation notes, short workplace extracts and longer talks; each recording is played onceabout 40 minutes
Reading (all professions)3 parts, 42 questions; Part A is a 15-minute expeditious reading task60 minutes
Writing (your profession)1 letter, usually a referral, transfer or discharge letter, of about 180–200 words45 minutes (5 reading + 40 writing)
Speaking (your profession)2 role-plays with an interlocutor who plays a patient or relativeabout 20 minutes

Listening, Reading and Writing are taken together. Speaking is done separately, sometimes on a different day.

OET scores and results

Each sub-test is scored from 0 to 500 and given a letter grade from A (highest) to E. Many regulators ask for Grade B (350) in every sub-test, and some accept C+ (300) in Writing. There is no overall score, so one weak sub-test matters.

Writing is marked by at least two assessors on six criteria: Purpose, Content, Conciseness and Clarity, Genre and Style, Organisation and Layout, and Language. In Speaking, assessors rate both your language (such as intelligibility, fluency and grammar) and your clinical communication skills, such as building rapport and giving information clearly. Results are released online; check the expected release date for your test session when you book.

How to prepare with 7ESL

Our OET practice tests cover the two most popular professions, Nursing and Medicine:

  • Listening and Reading: 42 questions each, marked instantly. About 30 correct answers out of 42 is roughly the Grade B level.
  • Writing: case notes for a Nursing and a Medicine letter, with a Grade A model and Grade A and C samples. 7ESL Pro members can get an estimated grade from the AI examiner.
  • Speaking: role-play cards with interlocutor cues, model answers and full model dialogues.

Tips for OET

  • In Writing, select only the case notes the reader needs. A focused letter scores better than one that copies everything.
  • In Listening Part A, write the exact words you hear, and check your spelling.
  • In the role-plays, speak to the patient, not about them: check what they already know, explain in plain words and respond to their worries.
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OET (Occupational English Test) — frequently asked questions

What is OET?

OET (the Occupational English Test) is an English test for healthcare professionals. It tests the English you need at work, such as talking with patients, reading clinical guidelines and writing referral letters. It is recognised by healthcare regulators, employers and some immigration authorities in countries including the UK, Ireland, Australia, New Zealand, the USA and Canada.

Which parts of OET are profession-specific?

Listening and Reading are the same for every candidate. Writing and Speaking are written for your own profession. OET has 12 professions; these practice tests cover Nursing and Medicine, the two most popular. Use the Nursing / Medicine switch on the Writing and Speaking pages to see your version.

How is OET scored?

Each sub-test is scored from 0 to 500 in steps of 10 and reported as a grade: A (450-500), B (350-440), C+ (300-340), C (200-290), D (100-190) or E (0-90). Many regulators ask for Grade B (350) in every sub-test; some accept C+ in Writing. In Listening and Reading, about 30 correct answers out of 42 is roughly the Grade B level.

How many OET practice tests are there on 7ESL?

There are 10 full-length OET practice tests, each with Listening, Reading, a Nursing and a Medicine letter, and four role-plays (two for Nursing, two for Medicine). Listening and Reading are marked instantly. The first 3 tests are free; the other 7 come with 7ESL Pro.

How are Writing and Speaking marked here?

They are not marked automatically. Compare your letter with the Grade A model and the Grade A and Grade C samples, which explain each of the six Writing criteria. For Speaking, practise with the role-play card, then compare with the model answers, the full model dialogue and the assessor notes. Pro members can also get an estimated OET grade for a letter from the AI examiner.

Are these official OET tests?

No. They are original 7ESL practice materials in the published OET format. 7ESL is not affiliated with OET or Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment. Clinical details are simplified for language practice and are not clinical guidance.

7ESL practice material written in the published OET format. 7ESL is not affiliated with, or endorsed by, OET or Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment (CBLA). OET is a registered trademark of Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment Trust. Scores and grade estimates are for practice only. Clinical details are simplified for English-language practice and must not be used as clinical guidance.