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B2-C1 OET (Occupational English Test)

OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Tests

10 OET (Occupational English Test) Listening practice tests in the real format, timed like the exam, with answers when you finish. About 40 minutes, 42 questions, the same for every profession. Part A: two consultations between a health professional and a patient, with note completion (24 questions). Part B: six short workplace extracts, one 3-option question each. Part C: two longer interviews or talks on healthcare topics, six questions each. You hear each extract once.

10practice tests
40minutes per test
3free tests
🎧 Listening

OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 1 with Answers

A free, interactive OET (Occupational English Test) Listening practice test with answers, about 40 minutes.

TopicsRecurrent headaches (migraine with aura)Type 2 diabetes dietAntimicrobial stewardshipDelirium in older inpatientsHypoglycaemia managementHand hygieneThe placebo effectHip replacement dischargeAtrial fibrillation referral

This OET Practice Test 1 (Nursing & Medicine) has 1 paper — Listening. Choose a paper below to start; your browser will load the interactive version automatically.

Listening

Listening Part A — Extract 1: Questions 1-12

You hear a GP talking to a patient called Nadia Petrova. For questions 1-12, complete the notes with a word or short phrase that you hear. You will hear the extract ONCE only.

  1. Listen and write: 1. History — headaches started about ___ ago
  2. Listen and write: 2. Site of pain — mainly behind the ___
  3. Listen and write: 3. Character of pain — ___
  4. Listen and write: 4. Duration — episodes typically last ___
  5. Listen and write: 5. Associated symptoms — nausea; sensitivity to ___
  6. Listen and write: 6. Before headache — sees ___ (aura)
  7. Listen and write: 7. Possible triggers — skipping meals; ___
  8. Listen and write: 8. Occupation — ___ (rotating shifts)
  9. Listen and write: 9. Current treatment — over-the-counter ___
  10. Listen and write: 10. Analgesic use — on about ___ days per month
  11. Listen and write: 11. Contraception — combined ___ (review needed)
  12. Listen and write: 12. Plan — patient to keep a ___ for 8 weeks

Listening Part A — Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a dietitian talking to a patient called Tomasz Nowak. For questions 13-24, complete the notes with a word or short phrase that you hear. You will hear the extract ONCE only.

  1. Listen and write: 13. Diagnosis — picked up at a ___
  2. Listen and write: 14. HbA1c at diagnosis — ___ mmol/mol
  3. Listen and write: 15. Breakfast — usually a bowl of ___
  4. Listen and write: 16. Drinks — about a litre of ___ a day
  5. Listen and write: 17. Occupation — ___ (irregular meal times)
  6. Listen and write: 18. Snacks during shifts — mainly ___
  7. Listen and write: 19. Main concern — fear of needing ___
  8. Listen and write: 20. Physical activity — ___ at weekends
  9. Listen and write: 21. Advice — swap white bread for ___ bread
  10. Listen and write: 22. Plate model — half the plate: ___
  11. Listen and write: 23. Referral — ___ programme
  12. Listen and write: 24. Follow-up — dietetic review in ___

Listening Part B — Questions 25-30

You will hear six different extracts. In each extract, you will hear people talking in a different healthcare setting. For questions 25-30, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear.

  1. You hear a nurse handing over a patient to a colleague. What does she ask her colleague to do? (A) reassess the patient's pain before he gets out of bed (B) check whether the patient still needs his urinary catheter (C) contact the patient's daughter about the discharge date
  2. You hear a ward manager talking to her team. Why is she raising the subject of the electronic prescribing system? (A) A software update will change how medication doses are displayed. (B) Staff are overriding warnings without recording a reason. (C) Some staff have not yet completed the required training.
  3. You hear a pharmacist talking to a nurse on a ward. What is the pharmacist's concern? (A) The patient is receiving a higher dose than was prescribed. (B) The patient's feeding tube may have become blocked. (C) The patient has been given a tablet that should not be crushed.
  4. You hear a physiotherapist talking to a patient who has had a knee replacement. What is she doing? (A) explaining why the patient must not bend the knee yet (B) persuading the patient to take more pain relief before exercising (C) correcting a misunderstanding about how to use the crutches
  5. You hear two junior doctors discussing a blood result. What do they decide to do? (A) give the patient intravenous calcium straight away (B) repeat the test before starting any treatment (C) contact the laboratory to query the reference range
  6. You hear a midwife giving feedback to a student. What does she criticise? (A) the timing of the student's entries in the notes (B) the student's use of unapproved abbreviations in the notes (C) the amount of detail in the student's records

Listening Part C — Extract 1: Questions 31-36

You hear an interview with an infectious diseases physician called Dr Marcus Bell, who leads an antimicrobial stewardship team. For questions 31-36, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear.

  1. How does Dr Bell describe the attitude of clinicians when his team was first set up? (A) They were unaware that antibiotic resistance was increasing. (B) They saw the team as an attempt to control their prescribing. (C) They expected the team to take over responsibility for infections.
  2. According to Dr Bell, what changed the relationship with prescribers? (A) offering advice at the bedside rather than issuing rules (B) publishing audit data comparing different departments (C) restricting prescribers' access to certain broad-spectrum antibiotics
  3. What does Dr Bell say about the 'five-day rule' for antibiotic courses? (A) It is supported by strong evidence for most infections. (B) It has been misunderstood as a fixed minimum by some staff. (C) It works best when combined with a review at forty-eight hours.
  4. Dr Bell mentions the case of an elderly patient in order to illustrate (A) the difficulty of diagnosing infections in patients with dementia. (B) the risks of treating a positive urine test without symptoms. (C) the need to involve families in decisions about antibiotics.
  5. What does Dr Bell think about rapid diagnostic tests? (A) They will soon make stewardship teams unnecessary. (B) They are still too expensive for routine use in most hospitals. (C) Their value depends on how clinicians act on the results.
  6. What advice does Dr Bell give to junior doctors? (A) to write the intended duration whenever they start an antibiotic (B) to consult the stewardship team before prescribing any antibiotic (C) to become familiar with the local pattern of resistance

Listening Part C — Extract 2: Questions 37-42

You hear a nurse consultant called Ruth Adeyemi giving a presentation about delirium in older patients in hospital. For questions 37-42, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear.

  1. Ruth begins her talk by describing a patient in order to show that (A) relatives are often the first to notice signs of delirium. (B) the quiet form of delirium is easily overlooked. (C) delirium can develop within hours of admission.
  2. What does Ruth say about the consequences of delirium? (A) They are frequently mistaken for signs of dementia. (B) They are more serious than many staff realise. (C) They usually resolve once the patient goes home.
  3. According to Ruth, why did the ward's previous screening method fail? (A) It was carried out only when staff already suspected a problem. (B) The questions were too complicated for patients to answer. (C) The results were not passed on to the medical team.
  4. Ruth mentions the 'sleep bundle' as an example of (A) a simple measure that required a change in routine. (B) an intervention that patients initially resisted. (C) a costly initiative that the ward eventually had to abandon.
  5. What point does Ruth make about antipsychotic medication? (A) It is useful when non-drug approaches have been tried for several days. (B) It is now prescribed less often than it was in the past. (C) It should be reserved for patients who are a danger to themselves or others.
  6. What does Ruth suggest the audience should do first? (A) review each patient's medication list for drugs that can cause confusion (B) attend the hospital's training sessions on delirium screening (C) find out what a patient is normally like from someone who knows them

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 2 with Answers

Knee osteoarthritis (physiotherapy)InsomniaLong COVID clinicFalls prevention in hospitalPaediatric acute asthmaInfant microbiome and antibioticsHealthcare-worker burnoutDiabetes educator referral (insulin initiation)Iron-deficiency anaemia referral

Listening · about 40 min

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 3 with Answers

COPD inhaler techniqueAcute goutEarly recognition of sepsisMusic therapy in dementiaAnaphylaxis and adrenalineSocial prescribingPharmacogenomicsStroke rehabilitation transferSuspected Parkinson's disease referral

Listening · about 40 min

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 4 with Answers Pro

Gestational diabetesPsoriasisRural telehealthPost-operative opioid stewardshipPressure-injury preventionSugar taxes and obesityChronic pain and neuroplasticityVenous leg ulcer dischargeSuspected ACL tear referral

Listening · about 40 min

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 5 with Answers Pro

Irritable bowel syndromeTinnitusNeedle-stick injuriesEarly mobilisation in intensive careWarfarin and INR monitoringNight-shift work and healthRobotic surgeryUTI with delirium: transfer to aged careHyperthyroidism referral

Listening · about 40 min

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 6 with Answers Pro

Fatigue and iron-deficiency anaemiaCardiac rehabilitation after coronary stentingVaccine hesitancyISBAR clinical handoverPaediatric gastroenteritis and oral rehydrationLoneliness as a health riskArtificial intelligence in radiologyPalliative care discharge to district nurseSuspected rheumatoid arthritis referral

Listening · about 40 min

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 7 with Answers Pro

Diabetic foot review (podiatry)Recurrent urinary tract infectionsMedication-error reporting cultureNutrition in cancer careBurns first aid and managementThe antibiotic pipelineSleep in hospitalPost-stroke dysphagia transferSuspected obstructive sleep apnoea referral

Listening · about 40 min

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 8 with Answers Pro

Hypothyroidism symptomsKidney stones (renal colic)Organ donationSurgical-site infection preventionNeonatal jaundice & phototherapyAir pollution & healthFrailty in older adultsNew epilepsy in a school-age childVisible haematuria referral

Listening · about 40 min

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 9 with Answers Pro

Asthma reviewGlaucoma eye dropsPalliative-care conversationsVTE preventionIV potassium safetyExercise as medicineThe gut–brain axis and depressionPostnatal anxiety referralLymphadenopathy referral

Listening · about 40 min

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OET (Occupational English Test) Listening Practice Test 10 with Answers Pro

Vertigo (benign paroxysmal positional vertigo)Fatty liver disease and alcoholInterpreters and health literacyPain assessment in non-verbal patientsFebrile neutropeniaHeatwaves and healthMRNA vaccinesOlder insulin user discharged to home-care nursingPersistent cough referral to respiratory physicianGoing home with a urinary catheterRelative requesting confidential informationAir travel after DVTInfant with bronchiolitis

Listening · about 40 min

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OET Listening Practice Tests with Answers

About the OET Listening paper

About 40 minutes, 42 questions, the same for every profession. Part A: two consultations between a health professional and a patient, with note completion (24 questions). Part B: six short workplace extracts, one 3-option question each. Part C: two longer interviews or talks on healthcare topics, six questions each. You hear each extract once.

How OET is scored

OET reports each sub-test on a 0-500 scale with a letter grade from A to E; Grade B (350) is the level most healthcare regulators ask for. On 7ESL, Listening and Reading give an instant score out of 42 (about 30/42 is the Grade B level). Writing and Speaking are not auto-marked: you get Grade A model answers, Grade A and Grade C sample letters with comments on each criterion, and full model role-plays. Pro members can also get an estimated grade for a letter from the AI examiner.

Other OET papers

OET (Occupational English Test) Reading practice tests · OET (Occupational English Test) Writing practice tests · OET (Occupational English Test) Speaking practice tests. Or sit a full OET practice test.

7ESL practice material written in the published OET format. 7ESL is not affiliated with, or endorsed by, OET or Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment (CBLA). OET is a registered trademark of Cambridge Boxhill Language Assessment Trust. Scores and grade estimates are for practice only. Clinical details are simplified for English-language practice and must not be used as clinical guidance.