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Grade 2 TELPAS Reading and Writing, Grade 2

TELPAS Reading and Writing, Grade 2 Practice Tests

TELPAS Reading and Writing practice for grade 2: 4 full tests in the 39-item online format, with explanations, editing questions and model answers.

4practice tests
70minutes per test
2papers
2free tests
📖 Reading✍️ Writing

TELPAS Grade 2 Reading and Writing Practice Test 1 with Answers

A free, interactive TELPAS Reading and Writing, Grade 2 practice test with answers, about 70 minutes.

TopicsHow to Plant a Bean Seed (short directions)Molly's Wiggly Tooth (story)Pumpkin patch (picture description)Sea Turtles (informational)Fly like a bird for a day (imaginative)A Name for the New Kid (story)A time you helped someone (personal narrative)From Wheat to Bread (informational)

This TELPAS Grade 2 Reading and Writing Practice Test 1 has 2 papers — Reading and Writing. Choose a paper below to start; your browser will load the interactive version automatically.

Reading

Part 1

Mia is thirsty. She drinks a glass of ________.

  1. Which word best completes the sentence? (A) bread (B) paper (C) chalk (D) water

Part 2

The sun is very hot today, so Ben wears a ________ on his head.

  1. Which word best completes the sentence? (A) sock (B) ring (C) hat (D) glove

Part 3

The baby bird is too small to fly, so it stays in its ________.

  1. Which word best completes the sentence? (A) nest (B) pond (C) road (D) oven

Part 4

Plants need water and ________ to grow.

  1. Which word best completes the sentence? (A) sunlight (B) plastic (C) music (D) paper

Part 5

Leo was ________ when his team won the game. He jumped up and cheered.

  1. Which word best completes the sentence? (A) sleepy (B) angry (C) happy (D) quiet

Part 6

Emma put on her warm coat ________ it was cold outside.

  1. Which word best completes the sentence? (A) until (B) because (C) but (D) or

Part 7

How to Plant a Bean Seed

First, fill a paper cup with soil. Next, push a bean seed into the soil with your finger. Then, pour a little water on the soil. Last, put the cup by a sunny window. In about a week, a tiny green plant will poke up out of the soil!

  1. What should you do first? (A) Push a seed into the soil. (B) Put the cup by a window. (C) Pour water on the soil. (D) Fill a cup with soil.

Part 14 — Read the story. Then answer the questions.

Molly's Wiggly Tooth

[1] Molly had a wiggly tooth. It was right in the front of her mouth. She wiggled it with her tongue all morning.

[2] At lunch, Molly looked at the red apple on her tray. "I can't bite this," she said. Her friend Grace smiled. "Try it! Maybe the apple will help your tooth come out."

[3] Molly took a small bite. Nothing happened. She took a bigger bite. Crunch! Something small and hard was in her mouth. It was her tooth!

[4] Molly smiled a huge smile. Now there was a little space where her tooth used to be. "Look, Grace!" she said. "I lost my first tooth!"

[5] Then Molly frowned. "Oh no. Where can I keep it? It is so tiny. I don't want to lose it again."

[6] Their teacher, Mrs. Hall, had an idea. She gave Molly a tiny plastic box with a lid. "Keep your tooth safe in here," she said. Molly put the tooth inside and closed the lid tight.

[7] After school, Molly ran all the way to her mom. She held up the little box. "Guess what is in here!" she said with a big grin.

  1. What is Molly's problem at the beginning of the story? (A) She forgot her lunch. (B) Her front tooth is loose. (C) She does not like apples. (D) She lost her friend's box.
  2. Why does Molly take a bite of the apple? (A) Mrs. Hall tells her to eat all of it. (B) Her mom packed it as a special treat. (C) She wants to share the red apple with her friend Grace. (D) Grace thinks it may help her tooth come out.
  3. What does the word frowned mean in paragraph 5? (A) laughed loudly (B) ate quickly (C) looked worried (D) ran away
  4. How does Molly feel at the end of the story? (A) sad (B) scared (C) bored (D) excited

Part 16 — Read the article. Then answer the questions.

Sea Turtles

[1] Sea turtles are reptiles that live in the ocean. They have a hard shell on their back. They do not have feet. They have flippers instead. Flippers are flat, like paddles, and they help sea turtles swim fast.

Life in the Ocean

[2] Most sea turtles live in warm oceans all over the world. They cannot breathe under water. They must swim up to the top of the water to breathe air.

[3] Different sea turtles eat different foods. Green sea turtles eat sea grass. Other sea turtles eat crabs and clams.

Nests on the Beach

[4] A mother sea turtle comes out of the ocean to lay her eggs. She crawls up onto a sandy beach. She digs a hole with her back flippers. She lays about one hundred eggs in the hole. Then she covers the eggs with sand and goes back to the sea.

[5] The eggs stay warm in the sand. After about two months, the baby turtles hatch. They dig out of the sand and crawl to the water as fast as they can.

[6] Some sea turtles make their nests on Texas beaches. On Padre Island, people watch for the nests to help keep the eggs safe.

  1. What is paragraph 1 mostly about? (A) what sea turtles look like (B) where sea turtles lay eggs (C) what sea turtles like to eat (D) how baby turtles hatch
  2. Why do sea turtles swim up to the top of the water? (A) to find sea grass (B) to lay their eggs (C) to dry their shells (D) to breathe air
  3. What does the word flippers mean in paragraph 1? (A) flat body parts used to swim (B) hard shells on their backs (C) holes they dig in the sand (D) small eggs on the beach
  4. What does a mother sea turtle do right after she lays her eggs? (A) She covers the eggs with sand. (B) She digs a hole with her flippers. (C) She crawls up onto the beach. (D) She waits for the eggs to hatch.
  5. Which sentence best tells what the article is mostly about? (A) Green sea turtles swim in warm oceans and eat lots of sea grass. (B) Sea turtles live in the ocean but lay their eggs on the beach. (C) People on Padre Island like to walk on the beach. (D) Baby sea turtles dig out of the sand after two months.
  6. Look at the photo. Which sentence from the article best matches the photo? (A) Green sea turtles eat sea grass. (B) They dig out of the sand and crawl to the water as fast as they can. (C) She digs a hole with her back flippers. (D) They must swim up to the top of the water to breathe air.

Part 18 — Read the story. Then answer the questions.

A Name for the New Kid

[1] Owen was visiting Grandpa's ranch in the Texas Hill Country. Grandpa had cows, chickens, and six goats.

[2] One morning, Grandpa called, "Owen, come to the barn! We have a surprise." Owen ran as fast as he could. In the straw, next to the mother goat, was a tiny baby goat. It was white with one brown spot on its head. It was only a few minutes old.

[3] "A baby goat is called a kid," said Grandpa. "This kid is a girl."

[4] The kid tried to stand up. Her legs were long and wobbly. She stood for a second, and then she fell down in the straw. She tried again and fell again.

[5] Owen felt worried. "Is she hurt, Grandpa?"

[6] "No, she is fine," Grandpa said. "New kids always fall down at first. Let's give her some time. Just watch."

[7] Owen sat very still on a hay bale and watched. The kid pushed with her back legs. Then she pushed with her front legs. This time she stayed up! She took one shaky step and then another. She walked right over to her mother to drink milk.

[8] Owen clapped his hands softly. "She did it!"

[9] "She sure did," said Grandpa. "Would you like to give her a name?"

[10] Owen thought about it. The kid was small and white, like the little flowers growing by the barn door. "Let's call her Daisy," he said. Grandpa smiled. "Daisy is a perfect name."

  1. Where does the story take place? (A) at Owen's school (B) at a pet store (C) in a city park (D) on Grandpa's ranch
  2. In paragraph 3, what is a kid? (A) a young boy (B) a mother goat (C) a small cow (D) a baby goat
  3. What does the word wobbly mean in paragraph 4? (A) very strong (B) not steady (C) very long (D) covered in straw
  4. Why does Owen feel worried in paragraph 5? (A) The cows run out of the barn and into the field. (B) The baby goat keeps falling down. (C) The mother goat will not eat. (D) He cannot find Grandpa.
  5. What does Grandpa tell Owen to do? (A) watch and give the kid time (B) help the kid stand up (C) bring the kid some milk (D) take the kid outside
  6. Why does Owen choose the name Daisy? (A) Daisy is the name Grandpa likes best. (B) The mother goat is also named Daisy. (C) The kid is small and white like the flowers. (D) The kid likes to eat the little flowers by the barn door.
  7. Which sentence best tells what the story is mostly about? (A) Owen watches a new baby goat learn to stand, and he names her. (B) Owen helps Grandpa feed all of the cows and chickens. (C) A mother goat looks all over the barn for her baby and cannot find it. (D) Owen and Grandpa pick white flowers to put in the barn.

Part 20 — Read the article. Then answer the questions.

From Wheat to Bread

[1] Many people eat bread every day. Bread can be soft or crunchy. It can be white or brown. But how is bread made?

It Starts with a Plant

[2] Most bread starts with a plant called wheat. Farmers grow wheat in big fields. When the wheat is ripe, it turns a golden color. Then farmers cut the wheat and collect its seeds. These seeds are called grains.

[3] The grains go to a mill. At the mill, big machines crush the grains into a soft powder. This powder is flour.

Making the Dough

[4] To make bread, a baker mixes flour, water, salt, and yeast. Yeast is alive, but it is so tiny that you cannot see just one. The mix turns into a sticky dough.

[5] Next, the baker kneads the dough. The baker pushes it, folds it, and turns it again and again. Kneading makes the dough smooth and stretchy.

Rising and Baking

[6] Then the dough rests in a warm place. The yeast makes tiny bubbles of gas inside the dough. The bubbles make the dough rise, or get bigger. Last, the baker puts the dough in a hot oven. Soon the whole kitchen smells wonderful!

  1. What is paragraph 2 mostly about? (A) how yeast makes bubbles (B) how farmers grow and cut wheat (C) how a baker kneads dough (D) how bread smells in a kitchen
  2. What happens to the grains at the mill? (A) Farmers plant them in big fields again. (B) Bakers mix them with water. (C) Machines crush them into flour. (D) They turn a golden color.
  3. What does the word kneads mean in paragraph 5? (A) pushes and folds (B) bakes in an oven (C) cuts into pieces (D) keeps in a cold place
  4. What does the baker do last? (A) mixes flour and water (B) kneads the dough (C) lets the dough rest in a warm place (D) puts the dough in a hot oven
  5. Which words from paragraph 6 help the reader understand the word rise? (A) in a warm place (B) tiny bubbles of gas (C) or get bigger (D) in a hot oven
  6. Why did the author write this article? (A) to tell a funny story about a baker (B) to explain how bread is made (C) to ask people to become farmers (D) to teach people how to grow wheat

Writing

Part 8

  1. Our class eats lunch ________ noon. Which word correctly completes the sentence? (A) on (B) in (C) at (D) to

Part 9

  1. My sister ________ to school on the bus every day. Which word correctly completes the sentence? (A) ride (B) rides (C) riding (D) to ride

Part 10

  1. I have two cat at home. The underlined word is not correct. Which word should replace it? (A) cats (B) cat's (C) catses (D) a cat

Part 11

  1. Emma and me made a card for Mom. The underlined word is not correct. Which word should replace it? (A) my (B) mine (C) I (D) myself

Part 12

  1. The elephant is biger than the horse.

Part 13

Yesterday we goed to the park and play on the swings.

Part 15 — Writing: Describe the Picture

Look at the picture. Write about what is happening in the picture. Be sure to tell —
  • where the people are
  • what the people are doing
  • what you think will happen next

Part 17 — Writing: Imagine

Imagine you could fly like a bird for one day. Write about your day. Be sure to tell —
  • where you would fly
  • what you would see
  • how you would feel

Part 19 — Writing: A Time You Helped

Think about a time you helped someone. Write about what happened. Be sure to tell —
  • who you helped
  • what you did to help
  • how you felt

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TELPAS Grade 2 Reading and Writing Practice Test 2 with Answers

Note about a class trip to the fire station (short read)Ben Feeds Bubbles (story)Sandcastle and the wave (picture story)Bees and Flowers (informational)How I get ready for school (explain)Lily's Blue Bike (story)Play inside or outside? (opinion)The Armadillo: A Texas Animal (informational)

Reading · Writing · about 70 min

Start Test 2 →

TELPAS Grade 2 Reading and Writing Practice Test 3 with Answers Pro

Book Swap Day notice (short read)The Rainy-Day Picnic (story)Talk to animals for a day (imaginative)How a Rainbow Is Made (informational)Making a fruit salad (picture description)Half a Sandwich (story)How to play your favorite game (explain)The Big Yellow School Bus (informational)

Reading · Writing · about 70 min

See Test 3 →

TELPAS Grade 2 Reading and Writing Practice Test 4 with Answers Pro

How spiders make webs (short read)The Chalk Game (story)A time you learned something new (personal narrative)Our Moon (informational)Birdhouse (picture story)A Card for Ms. Hart (story)Pet dog or pet cat? (opinion)Ants Work Together (informational)

Reading · Writing · about 70 min

See Test 4 →

The two TELPAS R&W Grade 2 papers

On the real test, the reading and writing questions are mixed in one sitting (questions 1–39). Here each paper keeps the official question numbers: practise one paper at a time, or sit both papers as one full test:

How TELPAS R&W Grade 2 is scored

Reading: 1 point per question (30). Writing: editing questions 1 point each (6) and three typed answers 2–8 points each (30 in total). Your result shows a practice level: Beginning, Intermediate, Advanced or Advanced High.

What is TELPAS Reading and Writing, Grade 2?

TELPAS (the Texas English Language Proficiency Assessment System) measures how well English learners in Texas public schools listen, speak, read and write in English. Since 2023 reading and writing are tested together online. This page is the Reading and Writing test for grade 2, one of six grade clusters (2, 3, 4–5, 6–7, 8–9 and 10–12).

Format

DomainItemsPointsWhat students do
Reading3030Choose the word that completes a sentence, answer a question about a short paragraph, then read stories and informational texts and answer multiple-choice questions about details, vocabulary in context, main idea, feelings and the author's purpose.
Writing930Six editing questions (choose the correct word, fix an error, a two-part error question and one sentence rewrite, 1 point each) and three typed answers — for example describe a picture, tell a story from pictures, explain something or give an opinion — scored 1–4 by two raters and added together (2–8 each).

All 39 items are in the official order: short reading items first, then the editing questions, then reading passages with the three writing tasks between them.

Who takes it and when

Emergent bilingual students (the term Texas uses for English learners) take TELPAS every spring, usually between February and March, until they meet the state's criteria to leave English language support. Scores help teachers plan instruction and are part of the reclassification decision together with other information. The test is untimed, and students type their writing answers on the computer. TEA has adopted new English Language Proficiency Standards; the current test design and four proficiency levels stay in place through 2027–2028.

About these practice tests

Each 7ESL test is new: the stories, talks, pictures and questions were written for 7ESL and checked by a second reviewer. They follow the item types, number of questions, order and scoring rules shown in TEA's 2025 released tests and rubrics, so students get used to the real format before test day. After each part you see the correct answers with short explanations.

Scoring

Multiple-choice items are marked automatically. The sentence rewrite earns 1 point only when every error is corrected in a complete sentence. The typed answers are scored with the TELPAS writing rubric. TELPAS reports four proficiency levels for each domain — Beginning, Intermediate, Advanced and Advanced High. 7ESL gives a practice level estimate for reading from TEA's 2026 cut points for this cluster; the writing estimate uses proportional cut points because TEA publishes no raw table for writing.

How to prepare

  • Read the questions first, then look back in the numbered paragraphs for the evidence.
  • Learn common question types: What does the word … mean in paragraph 4? What is the story mostly about? Why does the author include …?
  • For editing, check verb tense, subject–verb agreement, plurals, pronouns and question word order.
  • In writing, answer every bullet in the prompt, add details and examples, and use linking words. Compare your answer with the model answer and the scored samples.

The first 2 tests are free; the other 2 come with 7ESL Pro. 7ESL Pro members can also get AI examiner feedback on their writing and speaking.

Sources checked for this page

TELPAS Reading and Writing, Grade 2 — frequently asked questions

Is this the real TELPAS?

No. These are original 7ESL practice tests that follow the public format of the TELPAS online test (item types, number of questions, order and scoring rules published by the Texas Education Agency). The questions, stories and pictures are new.

Who takes TELPAS?

Emergent bilingual students (English learners) in Texas public schools take TELPAS every spring from kindergarten to grade 12 until they meet the state's reclassification criteria. Kindergarten and grade 1 are rated by teachers; grades 2–12 take two online tests: Listening and Speaking, and Reading and Writing.

Is TELPAS timed?

No. The real test is untimed and students may replay the audio. The timer on 7ESL is only a guide.

How are speaking and writing marked here?

Every speaking and writing task has a model answer and scored sample answers you can compare with. 7ESL Pro members can also get an AI examiner estimate and feedback that uses the TELPAS rubrics.

How many practice tests are there?

There are 4 full practice tests for this grade cluster, each in the format of the online test. The first 2 tests are free; the other 2 come with 7ESL Pro.

7ESL TELPAS practice tests are original practice materials written to follow the public format of the Texas English Language Proficiency Assessment System. 7ESL is not affiliated with or endorsed by the Texas Education Agency (TEA) or its test contractors. The level estimate is for practice only and is not an official TELPAS rating.